[Exile on Spencer St]

Good luck sifting through all 228 pages of “laws” of football.
Rule 11 (4) on offsides does state that:
“If an offside offence occurs, the referee awards an indirect free kick where the offence occurred, including if it’s in the player’s own half of the field of play”.

But there doesn’t seem to be any explanation or example of how that latter case can actually occur.

Perhaps, in the instance yesterday, a Stanley player was a few yards into the opponent’s half and was judged to be offside. He didn’t receive or touch the ball, otherwise the free kick would have been in Cheltenham’s half. So, somehow, that Stanley player then ran five yards back into his own half and ‘fouled’ an opponent. In which case, isn’t that just a foul?

No wonder the refs are as they are trying to interpret such convoluted notions.