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Old 24-07-2004, 12:53   #1
ShortStuff
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Equal rights - but only when it suits?

I was totally shocked when I read in one of my weekly womans mags the following story: (basic details) A married woman had an affair with a bloke, left her husband and married her lover. A few years down the line she was totally convinced that her new husband was playing away, and although she did have some points that would have caused concern, I didn't believe she had any solid proof. Anyway, one night after they'd been to the local for a couple of drinks, they were getting undressed and the woman just when crazy -

"Arms flailing, she slapped and scratched, clawing at his skin. He tried to defend himself, but she lunged, crunched her teeth onto his left ear. Then, scrabbling down his body, she clamped her teeth round his testicles - and chomped. She was in a frenzy, all control gone."

"His injuries - 12 stitches in his scrotum, eight in his ear, his neck and thigh covered in scratches..."

"The court heard how she had 'found out the victim was seeing another woman...what happened really was a crime of passion'. The judge was lenient. He gave her a one-year conditional discharge, told to pay the victim £200 compensation."

I think her punishment was totally laughable - if he had mutilated her like this he would be spending a good few years behind bars, and I suspect she would have received much more compensation. The article goes on to say that she feels he has been taught a lesson and will think twice before cheating on someone again - but she had an affair with him behind her 1st husband's back - does this mean he has the right to attack her, afterall, it would be classed as a "crime of passion"?

So back to my first question - do us girls what equal rights but only when it suits???
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